I have an amendment later on that refers to empty dwelling management orders, which do not work very well at the moment. If a local authority is managing a property because the owner of that property has a banning order, is it assumed that the only money the local authority can spend on the property, which may be severely substandard—that may be why the banning order is there, or may be related to it—is the money taken in rents, even if it is not sufficient to bring it up to standard? If so, do we accept that a local authority is managing a substandard property for a period of time and if not, where will the local authority get the money to put into that property?
Housing and Planning Bill
Proceeding contribution from
Lord Greaves
(Liberal Democrat)
in the House of Lords on Tuesday, 9 February 2016.
It occurred during Committee of the Whole House (HL)
and
Debate on bills on Housing and Planning Bill.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
768 c2158 
Session
2015-16
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords chamber
Librarians' tools
Timestamp
2016-02-26 15:56:29 +0000
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