I am trying to understand the point that the hon. Gentleman has just made. Is his point that because there is not enough shale gas in Europe potentially, it will not have enough of an impact on the European gas price vis-à-vis what has happened in the US? Is that the point?
UK Shale Gas
Proceeding contribution from
David Mowat
(Conservative)
in the House of Commons on Thursday, 18 July 2013.
It occurred during Adjournment debate
and
Backbench debate on UK Shale Gas.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
566 c333WH
Session
2013-14
Chamber / Committee
Westminster Hall
Subjects
Librarians' tools
Timestamp
2022-08-30 19:20:54 +0100
URI
http://hansard.intranet.data.parliament.uk/Commons/2013-07-18/13071889000196
In Indexing
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In Solr
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