Animals Act 1971 (Amendment) Bill

I do not understand the logic of what the hon. Gentleman is saying. I could understand it if he was talking about no-fault compensation under any circumstances, but if there is strict liability purely for the purposes of owning an animal when no negligence has been shown, why does he not extend that principle to every potential risk? Someone might drive into the wall outside his house. Does he believe that he should have strict liability for that? There is no negligence on his part, but does he believe that he should be responsible for any consequences?