I would be grateful for some help. As I understand it, people are going to be risk-assessed and then an order will be applied for. However, the risk assessment will not be triggered by the fact that they have done anything violent, because if they had they would be charged with a violent offence. Can the noble Lord tell us how someone will know that the person is a risk when that person will not have done anything that they could be charged with? Perhaps I can make myself clearer: on what basis will someone trigger the process that leads to them being put up for an order?
Criminal Justice and Immigration Bill
Proceeding contribution from
Baroness Stern
(Crossbench)
in the House of Lords on Wednesday, 5 March 2008.
It occurred during Committee of the Whole House (HL)
and
Debate on bills on Criminal Justice and Immigration Bill.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
699 c1176 
Session
2007-08
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords chamber
Subjects
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Timestamp
2023-12-16 00:36:19 +0000
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