I am grateful for the Minister’s explanation. The last part had not occurred to me. He seemed to be justifying the words in parenthesis, "““different provision in relation to local authorities in England and Wales””,"
as if that was the totality of the different provision for different purposes, which it is clearly not. Is he saying that when different provision is given to different local authorities it will only be to distinguish between England and Wales? I can understand the devolution argument in that respect. If this clause extends more widely, so that a county council in the north-west is differently affected from a district or county council in the south-east of England, I follow him less easily. Shall I give him a moment to respond to that, or is it something we have to come back to? The Minister seemed to be justifying the England and Wales distinction. While he is considering that point, I shall say with regard to Amendment No. 28 that I follow what he is saying, but I would like to consider it a little further in order to understand the implications.
Regulatory Enforcement and Sanctions Bill [HL]
Proceeding contribution from
Baroness Hamwee
(Liberal Democrat)
in the House of Lords on Monday, 21 January 2008.
It occurred during Debate on bills
and
Committee proceeding on Regulatory Enforcement and Sanctions Bill [HL].
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
698 c31GC 
Session
2007-08
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords Grand Committee
Subjects
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Timestamp
2023-12-16 02:33:01 +0000
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