If the principle is as obvious as the Minister suggests, why was it not thought necessary when the original Government of Wales Act 1998 was passed? If such a provision is now thought necessary, what has changed? Why was it originally thought that the position should be different from that of Scotland and Northern Ireland, but now thought obvious that the situation should be the same?
Government of Wales Bill
Proceeding contribution from
Lord Deben
(Conservative)
in the House of Commons on Monday, 23 January 2006.
It occurred during Debate on bills
and
Committee of the Whole House (HC) on Government of Wales Bill.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
441 c1203
Session
2005-06
Chamber / Committee
House of Commons chamber
Subjects
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Timestamp
2024-01-26 17:14:51 +0000
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