Commons Bill [HL]

Would I be right in saying that, if the owner of the land in question had given rights to people to conduct such activities in written form on a legal basis over 20 years, that would not necessarily result in the achievement of a prescriptive right? In other words, at certain points throughout the 20-year period, written permission has been given by the landowner, so that, at the end of the period, there would not be a prescriptive right. I have not explained it very well, but I think that the noble Lord knows what I am saying.