What is the noble Lord implying? He should not just put a question mark up. The clue as to why there is a difference is in the name “Supreme Court”. Why does the noble Lord think all 11 came to the same conclusion? By raising it, he is implying that there must have been some collusion or malfunction. Why ask the question without giving us an answer?
Brexit
Proceeding contribution from
Lord McNally
(Liberal Democrat)
in the House of Lords on Wednesday, 2 October 2019.
It occurred during Debate on Brexit.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
799 c1755
Session
2017-19
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords chamber
Subjects
Librarians' tools
Timestamp
2019-10-11 12:17:29 +0100
URI
http://hansard.intranet.data.parliament.uk/Lords/2019-10-02/19100232000081
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