Before my hon. Friend moves on to other amendments, I would find it helpful if he explained whether new clause 3(1), which says that the conduct that has to be alleged by the petitioners to a court must constitute
“misconduct in the office of member of parliament”,
is consistent with subsection (2), which says:
“The court may consider…conduct…whether or not it is committed directly in carrying out the office of member of parliament.”
We would be in the curious position where conduct unrelated to the office of a Member of Parliament and duties consequent on that office might be used to allege misconduct in that office. Is that not contradictory?