Does my hon. and learned Friend agree that there appears to be, in effect, almost a mirror image of the common law system of exemplary damages? Under the present system, which he rightly describes, for an unlawful arrest involving a police officer verballing an innocent defendant, for example, a judge would give exemplary damages. Surely that would be mirrored in exactly the same way in the provisions proposed in the new clause. All that might be good, but surely those provisions would apply on an ongoing basis in any event. Does he agree that the concern is that the provision on exemplary damages does not necessarily change the common law?
Crime and Courts Bill [Lords]
Proceeding contribution from
Guy Opperman
(Conservative)
in the House of Commons on Monday, 18 March 2013.
It occurred during Debate on bills on Crime and Courts Bill [Lords].
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
560 c712 
Session
2012-13
Chamber / Committee
House of Commons chamber
Subjects
Librarians' tools
Timestamp
2020-04-16 10:17:07 +0100
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