Financial Services Bill

This is important, so I will ask the question again. Can the Chancellor envisage a situation in which the Governor of the Bank of England would choose not to inform the Chancellor because in the Governor's view there was not a material threat to financial stability, and therefore no need for the use of public funds? And if the Governor chose not to come to the Chancellor in such a situation, would that be the Governor's own personal judgment—for example, if the deputy governor for financial stability or the head of the Prudential Regulation Authority took a different view?