Fixed-term Parliaments Bill

I am extremely grateful to the hon. Gentleman for joining our discussion of the history pertaining to prorogation. I am glad that he has recognised that understanding the history of how we have got to where we are today is relevant to the discussion at hand. However, as the House is clearly not in the mood to discuss history today, and as I am aware that time is pressing, I want to move on and make a final point about amendment 9 before bringing my remarks to a conclusion. Clause 3 states:"““Once Parliament dissolves, Her Majesty may issue the proclamation summoning the new Parliament which may…""(a) appoint the day for the first meeting of the new Parliament””." Amendment 9 would add:"““within 15 working days of the polling day””." The issue has already been discussed, but I am concerned that the amendment remains a little woolly. I question its purpose. What does a working day mean? Does that take into account religious holidays? There has already been a discussion about whether ““working day”” or ““days”” should be used. If that is an issue that the Opposition are concerned about, the term ““working days”” remains vague. Are bank holidays in other parts of the United Kingdom to be taken into account? Is it not difficult to add ““within 15 working days”” in such specific terms, when ““working days”” could mean something entirely different in another part of the United Kingdom? In particular, why is Labour adamant about 15 working days? Is there any rationale or logic behind this number? Why not 14 days or 16 days? If we believe in evidence-based policy making in this place—[Interruption.] I detect some chuckling. Perhaps that is a dangerous thought. Evidence is not always welcome in this place. I have discovered that in previous debates. Perhaps when he sums up, the hon. Member for Rhondda will explain to us why 15 days is the magic number, not 14 or 16. The House has indulged me enough. Time is pressing and there may be others who wish to speak. I thank the House for its attention.