Financial Services Bill

The Economic Secretary has mentioned the Maginot line, which fits in well with my reference to appeasement, because the Maginot line was broken almost immediately afterwards. The real question is, "Who is in control?" Does the Economic Secretary accept that, when he talks about jurisdiction, the European Union and the European Court of Justice will have jurisdiction? When he talks about supervision, as the Chancellor does, and when he uses the ridiculous language of who is in charge, does he realise that being in charge is not the same as being in control? Does he accept that, since the 1690s, the whole United Kingdom has been based on the assumption that we ultimately control our economy—the Bank of England Act 1946 was based on that—and that he is surrendering that control?