Bribery Bill [HL]

The noble Lord is very clear about that. What if the inquiry that the police officer was making was to exclude the employer from being criminally involved in whatever was going on? What if that was the position? Money had been paid over, the employer would say, "I am completely innocent; I do not want my employee talking to the police and being paid money by the police to give information, whether good or bad, about me". Are we saying that the police officer who paid the bribe would not in those circumstances be theoretically liable under Clause 1?