UK Parliament / Open data

Sexual Offences (Northern Ireland) Order 2008

My Lords, the Minister made a great deal of the need for uniformity across the various parts of the United Kingdom. It was one of his main points. Putting aside for the moment the question of the age of consent, am I not right in thinking that the criminal law of Scotland differs greatly from the criminal law of England in many respects? If that is right, does that not largely undermine his argument that there should be uniformity in this case?
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
703 c94 
Session
2007-08
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords chamber
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