UK Parliament / Open data

European Union (Amendment) Bill

My Lords, the noble Baroness says that no one challenges that. I put it to her that all of us who have spoken so far in favour of the referendum have challenged her point. If treaties that contained exactly the same clauses were to be replaced by one constitutional treaty, why is the legal effect any different if the treaty clauses here are exactly the same? It is a nonsensical argument.
Type
Proceeding contribution
Reference
702 c609 
Session
2007-08
Chamber / Committee
House of Lords chamber
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