Housing and Regeneration Bill

I understand what has been said about general consent, which is very useful, but I am not clear about what the noble Lord said. When assessing whether a piece of land can be sold to a local authority for less than the open market value, do you have to have a monetary test of the benefits that come from community use, community benefit and so on? I thought that he said earlier that that was not necessarily the case, but he now seems to be saying that it is and that a bogus sum—bogus is my word—has to be put together showing that the benefits add up to the cost of the discount.