Council Tax (New Valuation Lists for England) Bill

I, too, have followed closely the logic of the hon. Gentleman’s exposition of the amendment. I understand that if the Local Government Finance Act 1992 were to remain in place, there would be a guaranteed revaluation. Indeed, his party’s position coming into the debate was that it wanted the provision for a guaranteed revaluation to stay in place because that was what they voted for. Is it the case that amendment No. 3 would mean that the position relative to the 1992 Act would change, so it would be an addendum to a Bill that he would then happily support, or does he want it to replace the position in the Bill? Alternatively, does he want to change the policy adopted by his Front Bench for the debate?